If we have an algorithm such that its complexity is $\Theta(m + n^2)$ and we know that $0 < m < n^2$, then its complexity becomes $\Theta(n^2)$. But if we had an algorithm such that its complexity was $\Theta(m\log n)$ and $0 < m < n^2$, could we conclude that its complexity is $\Theta(n^2\log n)$?
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migrated from cstheory.stackexchange.com Dec 26 '12 at 13:31
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If $m=\Theta(n^2)$, then indeed $\Theta(m\log n)=\Theta(n^2\log n)$. However, you are only given that $0<m<n^2$, that is, $m=O(n^2)$ and you can only infer that the algorithm has complexity $O(n^2 \log n)$, but not $\Theta$ of the same quantity. For instance, assume $m$ is a constant, or assume $m=\sqrt{n}$, and you could see why it cannot be $\Theta(n^2\log n)$. |
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