Timeline for Validity of □(P→ Q) → (◊P → ◊Q) in linear temporal logic
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
5 events
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Dec 28, 2020 at 16:30 | comment | added | miracle173 | @PålGD □P→◊P is valid in LTL, every state has a successor in LTL but even if we allow states with no successors then ◊P is true if □P because the future states referenced by the ◊ operator include the present state. (Michael Huth, Mark Ryan: Logic in Computer Science) | |
Dec 11, 2018 at 8:54 | comment | added | John Kemeny | True, but the validity of the original statement would still hold: □(P→Q)→(◊P→◊Q). | |
Dec 10, 2018 at 23:40 | comment | added | Sue | I was assuming every t has a unique successor. Without that, there are bigger problems, it seems. If it's possible for a t1 to have no successor, then you can't prove □(P→Q)→(P→Q). But then I don't think you can prove ◊P→◊Q from □(P→Q). | |
Dec 10, 2018 at 22:07 | comment | added | John Kemeny |
I don't think □P→◊P is valid (perhaps it is in LTL?). But if a state t1 has no successor, then □P is true for every P, and ◊P is true for no P.
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Dec 10, 2018 at 21:35 | history | answered | Sue | CC BY-SA 4.0 |