Timeline for Landau Notation, Definitions: Limits vs. Corman's
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
10 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Mar 16, 2013 at 16:39 | vote | accept | Robert S. Barnes | ||
| Mar 15, 2013 at 19:53 | answer | added | Yuval Filmus | timeline score: 7 | |
| Mar 15, 2013 at 15:51 | comment | added | Patrick87 |
If your question is really Is there any inherent advantage to one definition or the other? Or is it more a matter of the author's personal preference?, the answer is that, yes, it is up to the author's preference which definition s/he uses. That seems almost tautological.
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| Mar 15, 2013 at 13:40 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/#!/StackCompSci/status/312558918788325376 | ||
| Mar 15, 2013 at 10:03 | comment | added | Raphael | Furthermore, make sure to fix the base set of functions. For some choices, different definitions are equivalent, but for others, they are not. | |
| Mar 15, 2013 at 7:46 | history | edited | Raphael | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 2 characters in body
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| Mar 15, 2013 at 7:45 | answer | added | Raphael | timeline score: 6 | |
| Mar 15, 2013 at 7:38 | comment | added | Raphael | The second is not even a definition, as you can see by $\implies$, i.e. the notable absence of $\Longleftarrow$. Nevertheless, it can be extended to a definition. As an exercise, prove that it is equivalent to the first one (which is not always the case with Landau definitions). | |
| Mar 15, 2013 at 7:35 | history | edited | Raphael |
edited tags
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| Mar 15, 2013 at 7:19 | history | asked | Robert S. Barnes | CC BY-SA 3.0 |