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Sep 17, 2023 at 6:37 comment added Tom van der Zanden @Geremia No, that's not what my answer is. My "assumption" is that settling the P v.s. NP question is hard (since a lot of people have tried and nobody has managed). Now if you believe that settling P v.s. NP (either way) is hard, then proving that one-way functions exist must also be hard: if you managed to do so you'd also prove that P≠NP, but it is not impossible that P≠NP but no one-way functions exist. Therefore proving that one-way functions exist is a "strictly harder" task than proving that P≠NP.
Sep 16, 2023 at 16:53 comment added Geremia "The answer is in your question itself[:] 'I believe that since proving its existence would also prove P≠NP'" You're asked "Why is it difficult to prove the existence of one-way functions?" and you 'answer' "Because I assume P≠NP."
Jul 15, 2019 at 9:16 history answered Tom van der Zanden CC BY-SA 4.0