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Oct 28, 2019 at 18:13 comment added Yuval Filmus You cannot prove that a language isn’t regular by showing that it has a nonregular subset. It just doesn’t follow. I gave you a counterexample to this technique.
Oct 28, 2019 at 17:46 comment added RandomPerfectHashFunction Yes, that's another alway to think about it. It just works out for $0^*1^*$, since every regular language is also a CFL. But in general the union of two CFLs is another CFL, which need not be a regular language.
Oct 28, 2019 at 12:30 comment added Yuval Filmus The point is that the union of $L_1$ and the new $L_2$ is the language $0^*1^*$, which is regular.
Oct 28, 2019 at 12:24 comment added RandomPerfectHashFunction The $L_2$ stated above is with $i \gt j$. Proving non-regularity for the language $\{ 0^i1^j : i \ge j\} $ is trivial since it has the language $\{ 0^i1^j: i = j \} $ as its subset.
Oct 28, 2019 at 7:35 comment added Yuval Filmus Try your argument on $L_2 = \{0^i1^j : i \ge j \}$.
Oct 28, 2019 at 6:38 history answered RandomPerfectHashFunction CC BY-SA 4.0