Timeline for Arguing that $L= \{a^n | n\geq 0\} \cup \{a^nb^n| n\geq 0\}$ is not $LL(k)$ for any $k$
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
4 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Apr 28, 2021 at 22:12 | vote | accept | Abhishek Ghosh | ||
| Apr 21, 2021 at 12:14 | comment | added | Yuval Filmus | After you understand the proof and why it works, you should be able to develop such intuition. | |
| Apr 21, 2021 at 9:17 | comment | added | Abhishek Ghosh | Thanks for the paper information. It is quite a thorough and formal proof. But is there any other intuitive way of satisying one's self that whether a language is $LL(k)$ or not? Or is it the only possibly easy way of proving? Because I feel understanding a proof is eased if one learns the intuition behind it. [ I am a newbie in this field, so do not know much about these things. ] (Or reverse engineering the proof shall give the intuition? Works most of the time... ) | |
| Apr 21, 2021 at 5:47 | history | answered | Yuval Filmus | CC BY-SA 4.0 |