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Feb 26, 2015 at 12:05 comment added babou $0(1)$ requires only 1 bit, while $O(C)$, for some positive constant $C$ requires requires $\log_2 C$ bits. So using the constant $1$ may save space. - - - - (sorry, I was not going to wait till April first for this comment)
Feb 26, 2015 at 10:34 history edited Raphael
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Feb 24, 2015 at 12:15 answer added Maxim timeline score: 5
Sep 22, 2013 at 0:19 history tweeted twitter.com/#!/StackCompSci/status/381573384590864384
Sep 19, 2013 at 17:17 answer added David Richerby timeline score: 11
Sep 19, 2013 at 13:39 comment added chirlu @Untitled: The usual definition for O notation refers to the absolute values of the functions involved. Thus, even an all-negative function isn't O(0).
Sep 19, 2013 at 6:16 answer added Ryan Mathews timeline score: -1
Sep 18, 2013 at 21:58 answer added J.-E. Pin timeline score: 1
Sep 18, 2013 at 21:16 answer added arsmath timeline score: 9
Sep 18, 2013 at 20:36 history edited Dan Tao CC BY-SA 3.0
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Sep 18, 2013 at 19:33 comment added Dan Tao @Untitled: Ah, so I was mistaken; there is a special meaning for O(0). But the question still remains for other values besides 1.
Sep 18, 2013 at 18:08 comment added Raphael @Untitled I think that's an answer.
Sep 18, 2013 at 18:08 history edited Raphael
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S Sep 18, 2013 at 17:44 history edited Juho CC BY-SA 3.0
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S Sep 18, 2013 at 17:44 history suggested avi CC BY-SA 3.0
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Sep 18, 2013 at 17:29 comment added Untitled $O(0)$ is not the same as $O(1)$. $f(x)=O(0)$ means that there is some constant $c$, such that $f(x)<c\times 0$ for large enough $x$. That means $f(x)$ is negative when $x$ is big enough. But that's not what $O(1)$ means.
Sep 18, 2013 at 17:22 review Suggested edits
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Sep 18, 2013 at 17:22
Sep 18, 2013 at 16:39 history asked Dan Tao CC BY-SA 3.0