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Dec 10 at 9:57 comment added SilvioM @JohnKemeny yes but the derivative of $k$ is $1$, so the ratio of the derivatives is $\frac{(2\log k) / k}{1} = \frac{2\log k}{k}$
Dec 9 at 22:36 comment added John Kemeny @KellyBundy the derivative of $\log^2 k$ is $2 \log k / k$.
Dec 9 at 21:27 comment added minh quý lê @KellyBundy I am assuming that the base of $\log$ is $e$. L'hospital method is applied to infer the step.
Dec 9 at 20:09 comment added Kelly Bundy Can you explain the step $\lim_{k\rightarrow\infty}\frac{\log^2 k}{k}=\lim_{k\rightarrow\infty}\frac{2\log k}{k}$?
Dec 9 at 19:36 vote accept maybesunny
Dec 9 at 19:31 history answered minh quý lê CC BY-SA 4.0