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S May 20, 2021 at 4:04 history edited John L. CC BY-SA 4.0
More detailed explanation when L2 is the "full" language
S May 20, 2021 at 4:04 history suggested IniasP CC BY-SA 4.0
Explanation on the argument for when L2 is the "full" language
May 19, 2021 at 15:30 review Suggested edits
S May 20, 2021 at 4:04
Jun 16, 2020 at 10:30 history edited CommunityBot
Commonmark migration
Feb 21, 2017 at 9:17 comment added David Richerby "No in general" is a rather misleading way of saying "Yes, except in two special cases."
Feb 21, 2017 at 8:39 history edited ymbirtt CC BY-SA 3.0
Tighten up argument to account for empty and full languages
Feb 21, 2017 at 8:27 comment added ymbirtt @Auberon, yep, you're right! Damn, I was sloppy 3 years ago, wasn't I? I'll throw an updated version together momentarily.
Feb 20, 2017 at 15:48 comment added Auberon $\Sigma^*$ and $\emptyset$ are valid languages in $P$. They are not trivial cases. So the answer is actually NO. This answer needs to be edited to be more complete.
Dec 31, 2013 at 23:01 comment added Yechiel Labunskiy I think ymbritt did just that in our exchange above.
Dec 31, 2013 at 22:59 comment added D.W. ymbirtt, Normally we try not to just dump the complete answer to a question that looks like a homework exercise, especially when the question shows no evidence of effort. (It might be what the original author is hoping for, but I don't think it's doing them a service, and I don't think it's good for our community in the long run -- it just encourages more such bad questions.) I tend to think it is better to provide hints, or better still, wait for the original author to make a serious effort on their own and come back to show us what they've tried.
Dec 31, 2013 at 22:55 comment added Yechiel Labunskiy Thanks for your help, a bit fudgy in my mind, but starting to sink in.
Dec 31, 2013 at 22:54 vote accept Yechiel Labunskiy
Dec 31, 2013 at 22:49 history answered ymbirtt CC BY-SA 3.0