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Jun 2, 2014 at 18:50 answer added David Richerby timeline score: 3
Jun 2, 2014 at 18:44 answer added D.W. timeline score: 3
Jun 2, 2014 at 18:37 comment added Guildenstern In that case, I think that making an example of two differently designed TMs that behave the same way (recognize the same language, say) should be simple enough.
Jun 2, 2014 at 18:35 comment added Tim Probably "different" in formal theory? For example, two Turing machines are different, according to the definition en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Turing_machine#Formal_definition. Two finite state machines are different, according to the definition en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Finite-state_machine#Mathematical_model
Jun 2, 2014 at 18:28 comment added Guildenstern In what way should these automatons be different? It might be that two different FSMs recognize exactly the same language, for instance. In the same way that two differently designed programs can be semantically equivalent, so to speak.
Jun 2, 2014 at 18:24 history asked Tim CC BY-SA 3.0