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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:32 history edited CommunityBot
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Feb 6, 2015 at 23:27 review Close votes
Feb 12, 2015 at 2:56
Feb 6, 2015 at 23:08 comment added D.W. possible duplicate of Encoding 1-out-of-n constraint for SAT solvers
Feb 6, 2015 at 13:41 history tweeted twitter.com/#!/StackCompSci/status/563694040282300416
Feb 6, 2015 at 0:40 vote accept user109711
Feb 6, 2015 at 0:11 answer added Yuval Filmus timeline score: 4
Feb 5, 2015 at 17:57 history edited user109711 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Feb 5, 2015 at 17:35 comment added Raphael Please edit your question to include your attempts and information you got.
Feb 5, 2015 at 16:47 comment added user109711 The initial question is here: cstheory.stackexchange.com/questions/29389/… but I cannot understand the explanation. What about the specific case when n=5 and k=2 as above, for instance?
Feb 5, 2015 at 16:29 comment added user109711 Intuitively, I would express it as an exponential sized DNF formula containing $\binom{n}{k}$ conjonctions of literals. For instance, for $n=5$ and $k=2$, the corresponding formula would be $(\neg x_1 \wedge \neg x_2 \wedge \neg x_3) \vee (\neg x_1 \wedge \neg x_2 \wedge \neg x_4) \vee (\neg x_1 \wedge \neg x_2 \wedge \neg x_5) \vee (\neg x_2 \wedge \neg x_3 \wedge \neg x_4) \vee \dots$ I do not see a more succinct way to do it. I have asked the question on cstheory.stackexchange.com, but the question seems not appropriate there. The answer may be obvious, but not to me...
Feb 5, 2015 at 16:08 history edited Raphael
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Feb 5, 2015 at 15:58 review First posts
Feb 5, 2015 at 20:04
Feb 5, 2015 at 15:56 history asked user109711 CC BY-SA 3.0