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Apr 2, 2015 at 6:00 vote accept Bakkot
Apr 2, 2015 at 5:47 history edited rici CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 2, 2015 at 5:34 comment added rici @Bakkot: I don't have a cite, but I think the proof is not difficult. It's clear that self-derivation is sufficient for an infinite number of derivations; the necessary part is absolutely clear if there are no nullable productions (without nullables, a derivation chain is monotonically non-shortening, and you can only have an infinite chain if there is some cycle). The same argument should work with nullables but the formalisation won't fit in a comment. I'll add the detection algorithm; it's not hard.
Apr 2, 2015 at 5:22 comment added Bakkot That make sense (though I'd love a cite), but I'm still not sure how to check if a terminal derives itself indirectly, as in the example I give.
Apr 2, 2015 at 4:58 history answered rici CC BY-SA 3.0