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May 13, 2016 at 19:29 vote accept user3062572
May 13, 2016 at 14:27 answer added David Richerby timeline score: 5
May 13, 2016 at 14:11 comment added Ariel Not a duplicate per se, but the answer there explains why every language is countable, which lies at the heart of both questions.
May 13, 2016 at 14:04 comment added David Richerby @Ariel Definitely not a dupe of that question. This question asks "Does every X have property Y?" and the other one is "Are there Y's that don't have property X?"
May 13, 2016 at 9:16 review Low quality posts
May 13, 2016 at 14:10
May 13, 2016 at 9:02 comment added Ariel Possible duplicate of cs.stackexchange.com/questions/41963/… Every language is countable, hence not all countably infinite languages are recursive (since we know there are non recursive languages).
May 13, 2016 at 9:01 review First posts
May 14, 2016 at 13:53
May 13, 2016 at 8:59 history asked user3062572 CC BY-SA 3.0