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May 18, 2017 at 11:09 answer added Michael timeline score: 1
Dec 1, 2016 at 5:45 answer added usul timeline score: 0
Nov 30, 2016 at 18:34 answer added vzn timeline score: 9
Nov 29, 2016 at 22:31 comment added vzn your question gets to the heart of mathematical proofs which generally manage to convert infinite properties into finite logical statements. "how this happens" is still under study. hes also pointing out the correspondence of undecidable problems to open mathematical problems, there is nearly a 1-1 correspondence for all open mathematical conjectures. (might cook this into answer with refs sometime if there is interest eg expr via upvotes). also more discussion in Computer Science Chat & my blog etc
Nov 27, 2016 at 0:01 history tweeted twitter.com/StackCompSci/status/802663690013212676
Nov 26, 2016 at 14:53 comment added hardmath Keep in mind that all formal proofs consist of a finite number of steps, whether they concern "a statement about infinitely many numbers" or not. In this hypothetical situation the claim depends on "knowing" an upper bound on how many even numbers have to be checked to verify (or contradict) Goldbach's conjecture.
Nov 26, 2016 at 6:53 answer added Eugene timeline score: 9
Nov 26, 2016 at 6:36 answer added André Souza Lemos timeline score: 11
Nov 26, 2016 at 5:11 comment added Ovi @Evil I would think it's possible that some mathematical conjectures are still unresolved because their proposed proofs rely on a finite (yet unfathomably large) number of calculations. I just wanted to check that this wasn't the case with the Goldbach conjecture.
Nov 26, 2016 at 4:35 review First posts
Nov 26, 2016 at 13:18
Nov 26, 2016 at 4:34 history asked Ovi CC BY-SA 3.0