Timeline for If a language is m-reducible to a regular language, does it mean that this language is also necessarily a regular language?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
8 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Dec 6, 2016 at 21:41 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/StackCompSci/status/806252145943212032 | ||
| Dec 6, 2016 at 8:34 | vote | accept | MHH | ||
| Dec 5, 2016 at 21:42 | comment | added | Rick Decker | By the way, welcome to the site! | |
| Dec 5, 2016 at 21:30 | answer | added | Rick Decker | timeline score: 1 | |
| Dec 5, 2016 at 21:16 | comment | added | MHH | Mapping-reducible. As in there is a computable function 'f' so that for every word 'w' in a given language 'A', f(w) belongs in language 'B', if A is m-reducible to B. | |
| Dec 5, 2016 at 20:49 | comment | added | Yuval Filmus | The answer depends on the definition of m-reducible. This is not quite a standard notion, so you'll have to fill us in. | |
| Dec 5, 2016 at 19:34 | review | First posts | |||
| Dec 5, 2016 at 23:56 | |||||
| Dec 5, 2016 at 19:30 | history | asked | MHH | CC BY-SA 3.0 |