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Mar 24, 2017 at 20:45 answer added ZeroUltimax timeline score: 1
Mar 24, 2017 at 19:33 answer added gnasher729 timeline score: 1
Mar 24, 2017 at 13:34 comment added Lumon Indeed only curiosity. Thanks for the generalization of the proof, I like it a lot!
Mar 24, 2017 at 13:04 comment added David Richerby I don't really see why you want to prove it by induction. I guess it's just curiosity but, still, what would you learn from an inductive proof? Probably it's possible but induction isn't necessarily a sensible way to prove every property of the natural numbers. (By the way, it's easier to use L'Hôpital once to prove that $\log n = o(n^c)$ for all $c>0$ and then you know that $\log^4 n = o((n^{1/4})^4) = o(n)$. Indeed, unless you're specifically asked to prove it, you can just use $\log n=o(n^c))$ for all $c$ as a canned fact.)
Mar 24, 2017 at 11:56 history edited Lumon CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 24, 2017 at 11:52 review First posts
Mar 24, 2017 at 13:04
Mar 24, 2017 at 11:50 history asked Lumon CC BY-SA 3.0