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Dec 7, 2022 at 19:39 history closed D.W. Duplicate of Is language $\{a,b\}^*$ same as language $\{xy \in \{a,b\}^* \mid |x|_a = |y|_b \}$?
Nov 12, 2017 at 3:28 comment added Ramesh @Hendrik Jan, Thanks for the link. So I think even this language is regular. We need to just put n=1.
Nov 11, 2017 at 21:51 comment added Hendrik Jan Still better, let someone else prove it: Is language $\{a,b\}^∗$ same as language $\{xy\in \{a,b\}^∗\mid |x|_a=|y|_b\}$?
Nov 11, 2017 at 21:41 comment added Yuval Filmus That's fine, but how do you know that it's the case for all words? You need to prove it!
Nov 11, 2017 at 21:17 comment added Ramesh I just took many examples and noticed that for any string w, it can be divided into parts x and y. Like aaabbbaa into aaa (x) , bbbaaa(y).
Nov 11, 2017 at 20:55 comment added Yuval Filmus Your reasoning is quite incomplete. It doesn't constitute a proof. It doesn't explain why you can divide any string $w$ into two parts $x$ and $y$.
Nov 11, 2017 at 20:34 history asked Ramesh CC BY-SA 3.0