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Jan 10, 2018 at 20:38 vote accept Skillzore
Jan 10, 2018 at 16:47 comment added OmG @Skillzore As you know, $(1-\frac{1}{k})^k$ for $k \to \infty$ is equal to $\frac{1}{e}$
Jan 10, 2018 at 15:52 comment added Skillzore What is $1/e$ supposed to be here? Or rather, what is $e$?
Jan 10, 2018 at 15:23 history answered OmG CC BY-SA 3.0