It’s trying to give an intuition and nothing more so, if the passage is not helpful to you, just skip it. Look at the actual definition instead.
Honestly, I think it’s a very bad and unhelpful attempt at giving intuition. In some ways, $\lim_{n\to\infty}f(n)=g(n)$ says “I don’t care how$\lim$ gives more information; in some ways, it gets there butgives less. In some senses, for large enough $n$$\lim$ is more specific in that it gives a single value that the function asymptotically approaches, and the notion of limit makes sense approaching points other than $f$ gets arbitrarily close to $g$$\pm\infty$. If the limit is a real number,” whereas then saying $f(n)=O(g(n))$ says$\lim_{n\to\infty}f(n)=c$ gives more information than $f(n)=O(1)$, “I don’t care how it gets there but there’s a constantwhich suppresses $c$ such that.
On the other hand, for large enough $n$many functions we're interested in, $f$ is$\lim_{n\to\infty}f(n)=\infty$ so $\lim$ gives almost no bigger than $cg$information.” So, really In those cases, big-O suppresses$O$ allows you to give more than limit and the quote is wronginformation.
And don’tI wouldn’t worry about the “suppressing a number” stuff, either. Saying $3x=O(x)$ suppresses the number three but $3x+1=O(x)$ suppresses two numbers, $3x=O(3x)$ suppresses nothing and $x=O(3x+1)$, er, un-suppresses stuff. So that’s wrong, tooSomethingl ike $x=O(x^2)$ is even less clear. It's hard to tell what de Bruijn really intended.