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Oct 16, 2018 at 7:58 history edited Blanco CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 4, 2018 at 16:40 history edited Blanco CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 4, 2018 at 7:36 history edited Blanco CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 3, 2018 at 7:34 history edited Blanco CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 3, 2018 at 7:33 comment added Blanco @D.W. You are right, I wrote the correct definition at the first time, and I decided to simplify it. And I did not realize that it is wrong.
Mar 3, 2018 at 7:29 vote accept Blanco
Mar 3, 2018 at 7:27 history edited Blanco CC BY-SA 3.0
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Feb 27, 2018 at 16:33 comment added D.W. There's something wrong with your question setup. A PRF takes two inputs: a value in $\{0,1\}^n$, and a key. Your function $f_n$ takes only one input. So, syntactically, it can't be a PRF. It's also not clear to me what you mean by "the distribution of functions $f_n$". You might want to check your understanding of the definitions. Once you fix that up, you'll find that a simple counterexample is $f(k,x) = k \oplus x$.
Feb 27, 2018 at 8:37 answer added Yuval Filmus timeline score: 2
Feb 27, 2018 at 7:20 history asked Blanco CC BY-SA 3.0