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Sep 24, 2018 at 1:32 comment added Hisoka Moroh Oh I see, thanks for your clarification!
Sep 24, 2018 at 1:06 comment added Yuval Filmus The idea is that $q_f$ plays the role of $q_2$ here.
Sep 23, 2018 at 23:06 comment added Hisoka Moroh For the claim that if $q_2 \in F$, the new transition is $(q_1, 0) \rightarrow q_f$ on $\epsilon$, why is this? Wouldn't it be $(q_2, 0) \rightarrow q_f$ on $\epsilon$?
Sep 23, 2018 at 4:12 history answered Yuval Filmus CC BY-SA 4.0