Suppse we have a Tarski-style universe $U$, which means, in particular, that the following rules are declared: $$\frac{}{\Gamma \vdash U \text{ type}} \quad \frac{\Gamma \vdash a:U}{\Gamma \vdash \text{El}(a) \text{ type}}$$
To introduce dependent product type into $U$, one uses, in particular, thse rules:
$$\frac{\Gamma\vdash a:U\quad \Gamma.\text{El}(a)\vdash b:U}{\Gamma\vdash p(a,b):U} \quad \frac{\Gamma\vdash a:U\quad \Gamma.\text{El}(a)\vdash b:U}{\Gamma\vdash \text{El}(p(a,b))=\Pi(\text{El}(a),\text{El}(b)) \text{ type}}$$
I have two related questions:
- The second judgement on the top of the rule $\cfrac{\Gamma\vdash a:U\quad \Gamma.\text{El}(a)\vdash b:U}{\Gamma\vdash p(a,b):U}$ presupposes that $\Gamma.\text{El}(a) $ is a valid context and that $\Gamma.\text{El}(a)\vdash U\text{ type}$. I can see why the former is true, but why is the latter presupposition true?
- Why can't we use instead of the rule $\cfrac{\Gamma\vdash a:U\quad \Gamma.\text{El}(a)\vdash b:U}{\Gamma\vdash p(a,b):U}$ the rule $\cfrac{\Gamma\vdash a:U\quad \Gamma.U \vdash b:U}{\Gamma\vdash p(a,b):U}$? $\Gamma.U$ is also a valid context, just like $\Gamma.\text{El}(a)$. Is it because the presupposition $\Gamma.U\vdash U \text{ type}$ cannot be proved? If so, how do I see that? If the reason is different, then what is it?