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Suppose we have a CNF formula $F$ built on the set of literals $L=\{x_1,\neg x_1,\cdots,x_n,\neg x_n\}$ where each variable is used in at least one clause of $F$. Consider a permutation $\sigma$ of $L$ such that $\sigma(F)$ is logically equivalent to $F$ i.e. $\sigma(F)\equiv F$.

Does it hold that $\forall x\in L, \sigma(\neg x)=\neg \sigma(x)$ ?

I tried to find a counter example without success.

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No. Suppose $F$ is the formula

$$(x_1 \lor x_2) \land (\neg x_1 \lor x_2) \land (x_1 \lor \neg x_2) \land (\neg x_1 \lor \neg x_2) \land (x_1 \lor \neg x_1) \land (x_2 \lor \neg x_2),$$

and consider the permutation $\sigma$ such that $\sigma(x_1)=x_2$, $\sigma(x_2)=\neg x_1$, $\sigma(\neg x_1)=x_1$, and $\sigma(\neg x_2)=\neg x_2$.

Then $\sigma(F) \equiv F$, but $\sigma(\neg x_1) \ne \neg \sigma(x_1)$.

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  • $\begingroup$ Yeh, I did not think of formulas with tautological clauses. Does it still hold when the given formula is not allowed to contain tautological clauses? $\endgroup$ – RTK Apr 6 at 23:48
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    $\begingroup$ @RTK, I don't know. As a starting point, I suggest writing a program to exhaustively search all possible CNF formulas on two variables $x_1,x_2$ and all possible permutations and seeing what you find. There are only $2^{16} \times 4!$ combinations, so that should be easily feasible on a computer. $\endgroup$ – D.W. Apr 7 at 2:53

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