# Is the difference of two context-free languages still context-free?

i am asking myself the following question:

Assuming: A and B are context-free languages, then A - B (difference) must also be context-free language, right? but I do not know how to prove it.

The complement of a context-free language $$L$$ is not necessarily context-free, but it is the difference between two context-free languages ($$\Sigma^* - L$$). (Here $$\Sigma$$ is the alphabet of $$L$$.)