0
$\begingroup$

Speaking of polynomial time reductions.

$\endgroup$
  • $\begingroup$ No, and I'm sure you can find a counterexample. $\endgroup$ – Yuval Filmus Sep 12 '19 at 7:26

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.