Just doing some work on Finite and infinite languages. And came across some statements I know the answer to but not sure how to explain why.
There are finitely many finite languages. -This is false right? Since there are technically infinitely many finite languages
Union of any two languages over alphabet (1,0) is regular. -False right? Since you can take a (non-reg U non-reg = non-reg)
Single state NFA can recognize only finite languages -False, but I have no idea how to explain why...