I know that a language is in NP if a Turing machine can decide the language of its checking relation $\{\text{boolean formula }\#\text{ truth assignment | truth assignment is correct}\}$ in polynomial time.
Here is my confusion. All Turing machine have a finite input alphabet $\Sigma$. Thus, none of them can solve any SAT problem with, say, $|\Sigma|+1$ variables. Thus, do we need another Turing machine with a larger input alphabet and its associated language to cover this problem? By induction, does this make SAT a union of an infinite number of languages?
If SAT is indeed a union of languages, and any Turing machine only responsible for solving boolean satisfiability problems with variables within its input alphabet, a Turing machine can simply "memorize" all possible 3-SAT problems without redundant clauses over this finite set of variables, and regurgitate the answer in linear time?
In other words, is there a loophole in the definintion of NP that allows for solving SAT by looking up pre-prepared answers? If such cheating is allowed, P=NP?