We are given 2 algorithms A and B such that for each input size, algorithm A performs half the number of steps algorithm B performs on the same input size.

We denote the worst time complexity of each one by $g_A(n),g_B(n)$

Also, we know there's a positive function $f(n)$ such that $g_A(n)\in\Omega(f(n))$

Is it possible that $g_B(n)\in\Omega(f(n))$? Is it necessary?

It seems naive to think that it's necessary, but I can't figure out to contradict it.


1 Answer 1


It is possible. Example $g_A(n)=1$, $g_B(n)=2$, and $f(n)=1$.

It is also necessary, since $g_B(n) = 2 g_A(n) \in\Omega(f(n))$.

To see that $ 2 g_A(n) \in\Omega(f(n))$ you can use the definition of $\Omega(\cdot)$.

From $g_A(n) = \Omega(f(n))$ you know that here is some $n_0$ and some $c>0$ such that, $\forall n \ge n_0$, $g_A(n) \ge c f(n)$. This implies that, for the same value of $n_0$ and $c$, $2 g_A(n) \ge 2 c f(n) \ge c f(n)$, i.e., $ 2 g_A(n) \in\Omega(f(n))$.

  • $\begingroup$ Yes, that's what I think (I proved it in the same way), but I'm not sure if I'm missing something $\endgroup$ May 16, 2020 at 16:19
  • $\begingroup$ No.. ? If you proved it then it must be true :) $\endgroup$
    – Steven
    May 16, 2020 at 16:24
  • $\begingroup$ You're right, I'm a newbie so I doubt myself most of the time. $\endgroup$ May 16, 2020 at 17:13

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