1
$\begingroup$

Like the title says. I can't figure out how to prove this.

I think it probably has to do with the polynomial hierarchy collapsing but I'm not sure.

$\endgroup$

1 Answer 1

3
$\begingroup$

$P \subseteq RP $, $BPP \subseteq PSPACE $.

So $PSPACE \subseteq P $, $-->$ $BPP \subseteq RP $.

$\endgroup$
1
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Thank you for your answer! $\endgroup$ Jun 16, 2020 at 15:51

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.