I was reading Turing's paper on computable numbers and the Entscheidungsproblem. There is this part of Section 9, Part II that I cannot quite seem to understand. He says:
It is pretty straight forward until the part where he introduces $\mathfrak{U}$. So $\mathfrak{U}$, he says, includes the Peano axioms; but what else does it include? I guess it includes the axioms for $G(x)$ as well, because only then would $\mathfrak{U}$ be able to "define" the sequence $\alpha$ that is being computed by $G(x)$. I am taking the word "define" here in its usual sense, but Turing explains what he means by "$\mathfrak{U}$ defining $\alpha$" as:
So for $\mathfrak{U}$ to define $\alpha$, $-\mathfrak{U}$ must not be provable? I am not sure why that is required? Because by restricting that $-\mathfrak{U}$ must not be provable we are saying that $\mathfrak{U}$ must not be refutable, which means that the sequence $\alpha$ cannot be all 0's (or so I think). But why would we want $\alpha$ to not be all 0's?
I am also confused about the two formulas ($A_n$ and $B_n$) he has written above. I am not sure why if has included the $F^{(n)}$ part. If $x$ satisfies the Peano axioms and the axioms of $G(x)$, then $U$ being a conjection of all these axioms is given to be TRUE, and if $x$ does not satisfy these axioms then $\mathfrak{U}$ is obviously FALSE. So, just based on $\mathfrak{U}$ we can tell whether $A_n$ is TRUE or $B_n$. So what is the point of $F^{(n)}$ here? I think the following set of implications say pretty much the same thing as what Turing has?
Sorry if I am overlooking something here.
Edit 1:
Here are the footnotes: