I'm confused about where the probability from the hiring problem comes from.
For background:
We interview one person everyday who has a quality characteristic, x, from 0 to 1(distributed uniformly). We interview for n days. If on the $i^{th}$ day, person i is more qualified then all the previous candidates, then we hire that person. Find the expected number of people we hire.
We can proceed to solve the problem using linearity of expectation and the method of indicator random variables.
Let X be the number of people we hire. $$X = X_1 + X_2 + X_3 + ... + X_n$$ where $X_i = 1$ if we hire the with person and $X_i = 0$ if we don't. According to online resources, the probability that we hire the with person is $\frac{1}{i}$ since each person is equally likely to be the highest so far.
However, this doesn't make sense to me. Why doesn't the probability that we hire the $i^{th}$ person depend on the quality characteristic we've seen so far?
Take, for example, the second person: Shouldn't the $(2^{nd} \text{person hired}) =1 - n_1$ where n_1 is the quality characteristic of the first person?
If we use what online resources say then $P (2^{nd} \text{person hired}) = \frac{1}{2}$. But what if person one had a quality characteristic of .9, then $P(2^{nd} \text{ person hired}) = .1$ and not half.
Can someone tell me where my logic is wrong?