I'm trying to figure out whether infinite language change the answer.
Show that the following language is decidable: $$L=\{\langle A,B \rangle : \text{$A,B$ are DFAs, $L(B)$ is finite, and $L(A)/ L(B)=L(0^*1^*)$}\}.$$
(I am talking about right division.)
We know how to check whether the language of a DFA is finite, and given two DFAs, we know how to check whether their languages are equal. The algorithms I know to the above problems uses the DFA's, so it is necessary having the DFA's in order to decide those problems.
I'm trying to figure out whether $|L(B)|=\infty$ changes the answer. To the best of my understanding, because $|L(B)|<\infty$, we can explicitly construct a DFA that accepts $L(A)/ L(B)$, whereas if $L (B)=\infty$ all we know is about the existence of $DFA$ that accepts $L(A)/ L(B)$.
However, even if $L(B)$ is an infinite language, since there is a finite number of DFAs, one of which accepts $L(A) / L(B)$, I can certainly know that there is a Turing machine that decides the language $L$. Right?