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Is it possible to use regular expression identities to prove or disprove that the RE1=0*(0+1)*0* and RE2=(0+1)* represent the same language?

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Yes:

Clearly, $L(RE_2)=\Sigma^*$ ($\Sigma=\{0,1\}$ in this case), and obviously $L(RE_1)\subseteq \Sigma^*=L(RE_2)$ (since $RE_1$ contains only letters from $\Sigma$)

Now, we also have $L(RE_2)\subseteq L(RE_1)$, since concatenating with a language that contains $\epsilon$ is guaranteed to only expand the language. That is, for any $L$, and and $L'$ such that $\epsilon \in L'$, its clear why $L\subseteq LL'$. In this case, $L=L((0+1)^*)$ and $L'=L(0^*)$. Apply this twice from both sides and you will get that $L(RE_2)\subseteq L(RE_1)$.

Therefore $L(RE_1)\subseteq L(RE_2)\subseteq L(RE_1)$ and thus $L(RE_1)=L(RE_2)$

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