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I have this equivalence relation problem:

Let $R$ and $S$ be two equivalence relations on the same set $A$. Define a new relation $U$ such that $U(x,y) \leftrightarrow [R(x,y) \text{ or } S(x,y)]$. Is $U$ necessarily an equivalence relation?

I said that is was an equivalence relation because $U$ is only true if $R$ or $S$ is true, and only depends on one. I do not know know exactly how to explain it, or prove this. Should I use proof by contradiction to prove this and make the negated statement $!U(x,y) \leftrightarrow {![R(x,y) \text{ or } S(x,y)]}$ and from this we can see that $U$ is an equivalence relation because the negation is saying that $R(x,y)$ or $S(x,y)$ isn't an equivalence when it actually is?

I am kind of stuck so any help is appreciated.

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In order to prove that $U$ is an equivalence relation, you need to use the definition: prove that $U$ is reflexive, symmetric and transitive. If you try to do that but it doesn't work, you can try to disprove the claim that $U$ is always an equivalence relation by giving a counterexample: equivalence relations $R$ and $S$ such that the corresponding $U$ isn't an equivalence relation (that is, it either isn't reflexive, isn't symmetric or isn't transitive); you can use your failed proof attempts to guide you in the construction.

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    $\begingroup$ And to add a hint to this, maybe it'll save you some time: reflexivity and symmetry follow directly from those properties of $R$ and $S$, so focus on transitivity. $\endgroup$ – G. Bach Oct 7 '13 at 15:38

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