I can't seem to find this stated explicitly anywhere, which makes me wonder if I have it all wrong.
So first, let's say we view problems in NP as degenerate problems in FNP, where the codomain of the binary relation is the set {true, false}.
Second, FSAT is known to be FNP-complete, meaning that everything in FNP can be reduced to it in polynomial time. Also, FSAT is polynomial-time reducible to SAT, which is NP-complete, and then a SAT problem can be changed to anything else in NP-complete in polynomial time. So this shows that everything in FNP-complete can be changed to something in NP-complete in polynomial time.
So the first thing shows that NP-complete $\subset$ FNP-complete, but then the second thing shows that FNP-complete $\subset$ NP-complete, which means that NP-complete = FNP-complete.
So given that, it seems like everything in FNP can be reduced to any NP-complete problem in polynomial-time.
Am I going somewhere wrong here, or do I have this all right?