Let $G = (V, E)$ be a weighted, undirected graph, with $f: E \to \mathbb{R}$ its weight function. Given a path $P = (e_1, \dots, e_k)$, we call $\operatorname{bwd}(P) = \min_{1 \le i \le k} f(e_i)$ the "path-bandwidth" of $P$. Let $\mathcal{P}_G(v, w)$ be the set of paths between two vertices $v, w \in V(G)$. Given two vertices $v, w \in V$, we call $\operatorname{bwd}_G(v, w) = \operatorname{max}_{P \in \mathcal{P}_G(v, w)}{\operatorname{bwd}(P)}$ the bandwidth in $G$ between $v$ and $w$. That is, the maximum path-bandwidth of any path in $G$ between $v$ and $w$.
If $T$ is a spanning tree of $G$, $\operatorname{bwd}_T(v, w) = \operatorname{bwd}(P)$ where $P$ is the path from $v$ to $w$ in $T$. We call $T$ a "maximum pairwise bandwidth spanning tree" (MPBST) when $\operatorname{bwd}_T(v, w) = \operatorname{bwd}_G(v, w)$, for all $v, w \in V$.
It is easy to show that every maximum spanning tree is a MPBST.
Experimentally the converse seems to hold: Every MPBST is a maximum spanning tree. Is this true, and if so, why?
I tried proving this using induction in the minimum symmetric difference between an MPBST and the set of all maximum spanning trees of $G$, to show via edge swaps I can make an MPBST of the same weight as the original one, but closer and closer in symmetric difference to this set. I could not finish the argument unless I assumed all weights were distinct.