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For example, is $(X \vee 1)$ a valid formula in conjunctive normal form (CNF)?

If yes, then I would have to consider such formulas when trying to prove a statement about all CNF formulas.

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  • $\begingroup$ This could depend on your definition of CNF. $\endgroup$
    – Yuval Filmus
    Mar 6, 2022 at 9:34

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$X \vee 1$ is not a CNF formula because $1$ is neither a variable nor the negation of a variable. Both $X$ and $\neg X$ are valid CNF formulas, however.

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  • $\begingroup$ The question is not hurting anyone. $\endgroup$
    – Pseudonym ♦
    Mar 6, 2022 at 22:33

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