As a general rule, $x_{n+1}=f(x_n)$ does not have a closed form. But I don't know of a general proof. (This seems to be at the same level of difficulty as the antiderivative or closed-form zeroes problems.)
An interesting case:
Let us consider the following iteration:
$$x_{n+1}=\frac{x_n^2+a^2}{2x_n}.$$
One can recognize the Heron method for the computation of the square root. The next iterate would be
$$x_{n+2}=\frac{\left(\dfrac{x_n^2+a^2}{2x_n}
\right)^2+a^2}{2\left(\dfrac{x_n^2+a^2}{2x_n}
\right)}=\frac{x_n^4+6x_n^2a^2+a^4}{4x_n^3+4x_na^2},$$
and the next iterations seem scary to evaluate.
But consider
$$\frac{x_{n+1}-a}{x_{n+1}+a}=\frac{x_n^2+a^2-2x_na}{x_n^2+a^2+2x_na}=\left(\frac{x_n-a}{x_n+a}\right)^2$$ and all of a sudden we get the easy solution
$$\frac{x_{n}-a}{x_{n}+a}=\left(\frac{x_0-a}{x_0+a}\right)^{2^n}$$ which we can solve for $x_n$.