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Prove/disprove the following claim:

If $L\in RL$ then $\{x~|~\exists y ~~s.t~~ xyx^R \in L\} \in RL$

I think that this is true, and my intuition is by using $L_{pq}$ s.t:

For every $(p,q)\in Q\times Q$ define $L_{pq}=\{w|\delta'(p,w)=q\}$.

Then by using $L_{pq}○L_{q,q'}○(L_{pq})^R$ and taking the union of all possible pairs, do we get the desired result?

Thanks!

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  • $\begingroup$ $x, y \in (a, b) ^*$? $\endgroup$ Jun 17 at 10:14
  • $\begingroup$ @user19121278 No, they are part of $L$ $\endgroup$
    – Math4me
    Jun 18 at 8:46

1 Answer 1

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Start with an automaton for $L$, with states $Q$, initial state $q_0$, final states $F$, and transition function $\delta$. Construct a new automaton whose set of states is $Q \times 2^Q$. After reading a word $x$, the new automaton should be at state $$ \langle \delta(q_0,x), \{q : \delta(q,x^R) \in F\} \rangle. $$ I will let you complete the definition of the automaton.

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    $\begingroup$ Thank you! I didn't mean the infinite union, but: $\bigcup_{(q,f)\in (Q\times F) } L'_{qf}$, such that $L'_{qf}$ is defined as the concatenation above. I will now think about your proof idea as well, thanks! $\endgroup$
    – Math4me
    Jun 17 at 10:26
  • $\begingroup$ @YuvalFilmus if we choose every time $x=\epsilon$ and remaining would be considered as $y$, then $$ L = \bigcup_{x \in L} \{x\}=\epsilon$$, then we said it's regular? Also because $xyx^r$ is also regular. $\endgroup$ Jun 17 at 10:28
  • $\begingroup$ An infinite union of regular languages isn't necessarily regular. It's also not necessarily non-regular. $\endgroup$ Jun 17 at 10:30
  • $\begingroup$ @YuvalFilmus infinite union of $\epsilon$ isn't regular? $\endgroup$ Jun 17 at 10:31
  • $\begingroup$ An infinite union of regular languages could be either regular or non-regular; both options happen. $\endgroup$ Jun 17 at 10:32

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