Let's say that we have a regular language $L_1$ that is described by a right regular grammar. Now, assume we have a left regular grammar, can we describe the same language $L_1$ or would the left regular grammar produce the reverse of all strings present in $L_1$?
My understanding is that the left regular language would produce a new language $L_2$ containing the reverse of all strings of $L_1$. But since we know that reverse of a language is regular, both right regular and left regular grammars are capable of describing regular languages
Is my understanding correct?