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For context free languages, I wonder that if all LL(k) languages can be recognized by a LR(1) grammar?

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Yes. See Language theoretic comparison of LL and LR grammars. In particular, https://cs.stackexchange.com/a/48/755 says $LL \subset LR(1)$, where $LL = \cup_k LL(k)$, hence $LL(k) \subseteq LL \subset LR(1)$ for all $k$.

See also Does my grammar contradict LL ⊆ LR(1)?. Make sure to distinguish between a grammar vs the language accepted by the grammar.

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    $\begingroup$ @reinierpost, No worries, and thank you for reviewing my post and the other links! I appreciate your time to keep the quality of this site high! $\endgroup$
    – D.W.
    Oct 3, 2023 at 15:44

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