For context free languages, I wonder that if all LL(k) languages can be recognized by a LR(1) grammar?
$\begingroup$
$\endgroup$
Add a comment
|
1 Answer
$\begingroup$
$\endgroup$
1
Yes. See Language theoretic comparison of LL and LR grammars. In particular, https://cs.stackexchange.com/a/48/755 says $LL \subset LR(1)$, where $LL = \cup_k LL(k)$, hence $LL(k) \subseteq LL \subset LR(1)$ for all $k$.
See also Does my grammar contradict LL ⊆ LR(1)?. Make sure to distinguish between a grammar vs the language accepted by the grammar.
-
1$\begingroup$ @reinierpost, No worries, and thank you for reviewing my post and the other links! I appreciate your time to keep the quality of this site high! $\endgroup$– D.W. ♦Oct 3 at 15:44