I'm going over some of the pre-requisite math regarding Automata theory, and finite representations.
I read the following:
If ∑ is a finite alphabet the set of all strings over the alphabet (∑*) is countably infinite.
The set of all possible languages over an alphabet ∑ is uncountably infinite.
How can the set of languages possible from ∑ be uncountably infinite, yet the possible application of that alphabet to a language be countably infinite?
Can I ask those replying to not use too much complex notation, as I'm not a mathematics wizz.