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Note that this is not shuffle but perfect shuffle, defined as follows:

Let $w = a_{1}a_{2} \ldots a_{n}$ and $x = b_{1}b_{2} \ldots b_{n}$ be two strings of the same length. Then the perfect shuffle of $w$ and $x$ is defined as $a_{1}b_{1}a_{2}b_{2} \ldots a_{n}b_{n}$.

So the question is: are context free languages closed under perfect shuffle?

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    $\begingroup$ Do you define the perfect shuffle as an unary or binary operation? I.e. are $w$ and $x$ from the same regular language or from two different regular languages? $\endgroup$
    – Gaste
    Nov 2 '14 at 23:48
  • $\begingroup$ So this is not actually shuffling but interleaving. $\endgroup$ Nov 3 '14 at 0:52
  • $\begingroup$ No. Actually a in w and b in x are both characters. So w and x are both strings formed by ai and bi. $\endgroup$
    – ForSol
    Nov 3 '14 at 1:26
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    $\begingroup$ @DavidRicherby Interleaving seems good terminology, but perfect shuffle is sometimes used. $\endgroup$ Nov 3 '14 at 22:00
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Nope. Shuffle $\{ a^n b^{2n} \mid n\ge1\}$ with $\{ a^{2n} b^n \mid n\ge1\}$ .

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  • $\begingroup$ Thank you. So we will get {a^n(ba)^nb^n | n>=1 }. How can I prove that this is not context free $\endgroup$
    – ForSol
    Nov 3 '14 at 1:31
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    $\begingroup$ Its almost the same proof as for $\{a^n b^n c^n \mid n \geq 1\}$ $\endgroup$
    – Mike B.
    Nov 3 '14 at 7:29

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