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This is a problem in a theory of computation book that's stumping me:

Suppose that we know that $L_1 ∪ L_2$ and $L_1$ are regular. Can we conclude that $L_2$ is regular? Explain.

At first, I thought I could build the NFA that is the union of two DFAs, one which accepts $L_1$, and one which we don't know about. Then lambda transition over to the $L_1$ DFA. Then, the union would be regular, but we wouldn't be able to conclude anything about the $L_2$ DFA.

I think my reasoning is poor though. Could someone please point me in the right direction?

Thank you.

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    $\begingroup$ Hint: make $L_1$ big. Hint 2: make $L_1 \subseteq L_2$. $\endgroup$
    – Raphael
    Feb 5, 2015 at 16:27
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    $\begingroup$ Similar question. $\endgroup$
    – Raphael
    Feb 5, 2015 at 16:30
  • $\begingroup$ You tell me. :) $\endgroup$
    – Raphael
    Feb 5, 2015 at 17:36
  • $\begingroup$ possible duplicate of How to prove a language is regular? $\endgroup$
    – D.W.
    Feb 6, 2015 at 0:24

1 Answer 1

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No, since $\Sigma^* \cup L$ and $\Sigma^*$ are regular languages, for any $L$ and there are non-regular languages, we cannot conclude anything about $L$.

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