So I was able to show that:
$\log(n!) = O(n\log n)$ without any problems.
My question is when trying to prove that $\log (n!) = \Omega(n\log n)$.
I was able to show that:
$$\begin{align*}
\log n! &= \log(1 \cdot 2 \cdot 3 \cdots n )\\
&= \log 1 + \log2 + \log3 + \dots + \log n \\
&= \log 1 + \dots + \log\tfrac{n}{2} + \dots + \log n\\
&\geq \log\tfrac{n}{2} + \log\big(\tfrac{n}{2} + 1\big) + \dots + \log n &&\text{(i.e., the larger half of the sum)}\\
&\geq \log\big(\tfrac{n}{2}\big) + \log\big(\tfrac{n}{2}\big) + \dots + \log\big(\tfrac{n}{2}\big)&&\text{(adding $\tfrac{n}2$ times)} \\
&= \log\big(\tfrac{n}{2} \cdot \tfrac{n}{2} \cdots \tfrac{n}{2}) &&\text{($\tfrac{n}{2}$ times)} \\
&= \log\Big(\tfrac{n}{2}^{\tfrac{n}{2}}\Big)\\
&= \tfrac{n}{2} log\big(\tfrac{n}{2}\big) &&\text{(by log exponent rule)}
\end{align*}$$
Thus, $\log(n!) \geq \tfrac{n}{2}\log\big(\tfrac{n}{2}\big)$, so we conclude that $\log(n!) = \Omega(n\log n)$.
I don't understand how finding the lower bound of $\log(n!)$ is found by getting the larger half of the sum. Why is that chosen to find $\Omega(n\log n)$? I feel like it's probably something obvious but it's the only thing keeping me from fully grasping the proof. If someone can enlighten me, I would appreciate it!