-2
$\begingroup$

This question already has an answer here:

If $L_{1} \subseteq L_{2}$ and $ L_{2}$ is regular, does it follow that $L_{1}$ is necessarily regular? I don't understand this question, is there any proof to show this or is there an assumption we make?

$\endgroup$

marked as duplicate by Ran G., Tom van der Zanden, Evil, D.W. Oct 22 '15 at 21:13

This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

  • 5
    $\begingroup$ Please do not vandalize your question. $\endgroup$ – ArtOfCode Aug 10 '16 at 12:49
2
$\begingroup$

No, $L_1$ is not necessarily regular. We could have $L_2 = \Sigma^*$, in which case $L_1$ could be anything at all.

$\endgroup$

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.