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Let be $F=(A\land B)$ and $G=\neg(\neg A \lor \neg B)$. Which of the following statements are correct

$F=G, F\equiv G, \neg F=\neg G, \neg F\equiv\neg G$?

Is there a difference?

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  • $\begingroup$ Hello! We discourage posts that simply state a problem out of context, and expect the community to solve it. What are your thoughts? What have you tried? Where did you get stuck? Did you try writing out a truth table? Assuming you tried to solve it yourself and got stuck, it may be helpful if you wrote your thoughts and what you could not figure out. $\endgroup$ – D.W. Oct 26 '15 at 0:32
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Equality is a syntactic notion, equivalence is a semantic notion. Two expressions are equal if they are the same expression — in other words, an expression is only equal to itself. Two logical expressions are equivalent if they have the same truth value in every interpretation.

Two equal expressions are always equivalent, but the converse doesn't hold. For example, $A \equiv \lnot\lnot A$ but $A \neq \lnot\lnot A$.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thank you for firstly for your answer! So, the right statements would be $\neg F\equiv \neg G$ and $F\equiv G$. I've proved these with a truth table. $\endgroup$ – MathCracky Oct 25 '15 at 11:37
  • $\begingroup$ These identities are known as the de Morgan laws, and they also hold when switching AND and OR. $\endgroup$ – Yuval Filmus Oct 25 '15 at 12:22

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