If $L_1$$\subseteq$ $\Sigma^*$, $L_2$$\subseteq$ $\Sigma^*$ , $L_1$ is regular and $L_1$$\cup$ $L_2$ = $\Sigma^*$ then is $L_2$ necessarily regular?
I think that the answer is yes, but I'm not sure on my proof.
The reason that I think that $L_2$ is regular is because surely $L_2$ just accepts all the words in the language that $L_1$ doesn't? So, to me, that suggests that $L_2$ must be regular as well, I just don't know where to begin on a formal proof.
Any guidance would be appreciated.