Just a question for personal comprehension. Consider the following statement:

It is NP-hard to approximate Set-Cover within a $(1 - \epsilon) \log n$ factor for any $0 < \epsilon < 1$.

Now, NP-hardness refers to decision problems.So what is NP-Hard exactly here ?

My guess is that the statement is equivalent to saying that the following problem is NP-hard (but I really ain't sure):

Given a set cover instance $S$ and an integer $k$ with the guarantee that either $S$ admits a cover of size at most $k$, or $S$ has a cover of size at least $k \cdot (1 - \epsilon) \log n$, decide if $S$ has a cover of size at most $k$.

Note that I took set cover as an example, but my question is on problems that are said 'hard to approximate' in general.


2 Answers 2


Your guess is correct. The formal statement corresponding to the informal one goes like this:

For every $\epsilon > 0$ and every language $L$ in NP there exists a polytime reduction $f$ mapping instances of $L$ to instances of set cover $(F,m)$ (where $F$ is a set system and $m$ is the target number of sets) such that:

  • If $x \in L$ then $f(x)$ has a cover with $m$ sets, and

  • If $x \notin L$ then every cover of $f(x)$ requires at least $(1-\epsilon)\ln n \cdot m$ sets, where $n$ is the size of the universe.

For this more accurate version, see Claim 4.2 in Dana Moshkovitz, The projection games conjecture and the NP-hardness of $\ln n$-approximating set cover.

A statement claiming that a certain approximation problem is NP-hard to approximate better than some factor should always be interpreted in this way.

  • $\begingroup$ Thank you for your answer. So I guess I could have the same formulation for, say, CLIQUE - i.e. there is an $f$ mapping $x \in L$ to a graph with clique number $\geq m$, and $x \notin L$ to a graph with clique number $\leq 1/(n^{1-\epsilon}) m$. Does that sound right ? $\endgroup$ Dec 2, 2015 at 15:44
  • $\begingroup$ Yes, this sounds right. You can always look at the paper if you want to be sure. $\endgroup$ Dec 2, 2015 at 17:10

Most likely what is meant is the following statement:

If $P \ne NP$, then there is no polynomial-time approximation algorithm for Set-Cover that achieves a $(1-\epsilon) \log n$ approximation factor.

Or, equivalently: the existence of a polynomial-time approximation algorithm for Set-Cover that achieves a $(1-\epsilon) \log n$ approximation factor implies that $P=NP$.

Your proposed formulation at the end of your question might look tempting, but if you want to understand how to formalize the claim, I probably wouldn't suggest formalizing it that way -- that formulation introduces unfamiliar technical issues of its own. The problem you listed is a promise problem (it's not a decision problem). Promise problems are weird and some of your intuition that you've built up won't work quite right for promise problems. Promise problems are weird and counter-intuitive; if you want to build your intuition, often it's best to simply avoid them, rather than try to absorb the messy details involved in formalizing them.

  • $\begingroup$ +1 Thank you for your answer. I accepted Yuval's answer since it corresponds a bit more to what I was looking for - but still thanks. If you have any comments on his answer they're welcome. $\endgroup$ Dec 2, 2015 at 15:46

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